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Was an English subject or citizen of the past equivalent to a slaves? (1614 hits)

Since the royal family believes that England belongs to them and that the people are their subjects, does that mean subjects are equivalent
to slaves or not?

Posted By: Dr. Okpara Nosakhere
Tuesday, March 29th 2011 at 4:32PM
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GOOD Subject Dr. Okpara Nosakhere

...Do you mean....that SUBJECTS or people of 1600-----> England: were the Slaves of King James

AND.....they are not responsible for the kingJames Version....Generational....rape, torture, murder

and NO...NONE.... education of the ancestors of 2020 African Americans.....?

*******************************************************************************************************************

...Were the 1864-1865 Freed Africans the LEAST educated people on the Planet Earth....?

OR

...Were the COLORED'whiteSupremist' the LEAST educated people on the Planet Earth....?

Thursday, April 16th 2020 at 8:50AM
robert powell

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